Mary as Intercessor
THE ANCIENT TRADITION OF CHRISTIAN BELIEF IN REGARDS TO MARY
PERPETUAL VIRGINITY OF MARY
MARY, THE MOTHER OF GOD
MARY'S IMMACULATE CONCEPTION
BIBLICAL INDICATIONS OF MARY'S ROLE
Mary as the Queen Mother
There is an Aramaic word, "Gebirah", which means
"Queen Mother". Traditionally, next to the throne
of the King was a second throne. Many would
assume that the second throne belonged to the
wife of the King, but in Israel it belonged to the
mother of the king. The Gebirah was an official
position, one with which everyone (Jesus and His
disciples included) was entirely familiar. Her role
was as an advocate of the people; anyone who
had a petition or sought an audience with the
King did so through her. She was an intercessor,
presenting the wishes and concerns of the people
to the King. This does not imply that the King
was unapproachable, or that people were afraid or
unable to speak to him. It merely means that the
King honored his mother and took her requests
into special consideration. On the part of the
people, they felt close to her, as if they too were
her children.
This role is mentioned in:
1 Kings 15:13 " He also deposed his Maacah from
her position as queen mother"
2 Kings 10:13 " "We are kinsmen of Ahaziah," they
replied. "We are going down to visit the princes and
the family of the queen mother.""
Jeremiah 13:18 " Say to the king and to the queen
mother: come down from your throne"
Her specific place of honor and intercession is
dramatically illustrated in the following passage
from 1 Kings 2: 13-21:
" Adonijah, son of Haggith, went to Bathsheba,
the mother of Solomon. "Do you come as a friend?"
she asked. "Yes," he answered, and added, "I have
something to say to you." She replied, "Say it." So
he said: "...There is one favor I would ask of you.
Do not refuse me." And she said, "Speak on." He
said, "Please ask King Solomon, who will not refuse
you, to give me Abishag the Shunamite for my wife."
"Very well," replied Bathsheba, "I will speak to the
king for you." Then Bathsheba went to King
Solomon to speak to him for Adonijah, and the king
stood up to meet her and paid her homage. Then he
sat down upon his throne, and a throne was
provided for the king's mother, who sat at his right.
"There is one small favor I would ask of you," she
said. "Do not refuse me." "Ask it, my mother," the
king said to her, "for I will not refuse you." So she
said, "Let Abishag the Shunamite be given to your
brother Adonijah for his wife.""
Of particular import are the following observations:
1.Adonijah assumed that the queen mother would
approach the King on his behalf; he trusted her.
2. The reaction of the King is noteworthy: he stood up
to meet her and paid her homage.
3. A throne was provided for her, and she sat at his right.
4. Her power as intercessor is stressed by the repetition
of the idea that the king "will not refuse her".
We do the same with Mary today. We assume that she
will approach the King on our behalf. Now, many
Protestants will say "We don't need to go through
anyone; we can speak to God directly." Well, of course
we can, and we should. But I doubt that that same
person NEVER asked a friend to say a prayer for or with
him. We ask our friends to pray for and with us, not
because we feel that we can't approach God directly, but
because we are a family in Christ, and the more the merrier.
We care about each other, and approach God on behalf
of those we love all the time. Why limit that care and
assistance to those living on this earth now? Saint Paul
tells us that we are surrounded by a cloud of witnesses--
do we think that these witnesses care nothing for us?
Revelations tells us that the prayers of the saints rise
like insence before God. Who do you suppose they
are praying for? In Tobit we read:
"And so, when you and your daughter-in-law Sarah
prayed, I {Raphael} brought a reminder of your prayer
before the Holy One." [Tobit 12:12; RSV]
If we ask those we know here to pray for us, how
should we refrain from asking those who are in the
presence of God? And if we ask those who are in
the presence of God to pray for us, how should we
refrain from asking the very mother of the King?
Tradition (the same Tradition, remember, which gave
us the Bible) tells us that when Jesus was dying on the
Cross, His words to the beloved disciple are applied to
each of us, and those words are: "Behold your mother."
Mary as Ark of the New Covenant
This point direcctly addresses the issue of Mary's
immaculate conception, but I will address that
topic (and the objections to it) more fully later on
as well.
The Ark of the Old Covenant was the holding place for
the Ten Commandments, which was the word of God. In
the Bible, St. John calls Jesus the word of God as well,
and Mary, by carrying Him in her womb, became the Ark
of the New Covenant. The Ark of the Covenant is a holy
and pure thing. If Mary had original sin, she would not
have been pure, and therefore could not have been the
Ark of the New Covenant. This idea is presented in the
Bible when we compare the Old Testament to the New
Testament. Notice these similarities:
Old Covenant: This is when the ark of the covenant was
brought before King David.
"David feared the LORD that day and said, 'How
can the ark of the LORD come to me?'." 2 Samuel 6:9
New Covenant: This is when Mary went to visit her cousin
Elizabeth, who was pregnant with John the Baptist.
"And how does this happen to me, that the mother
of my Lord should come to me?" Luke 1:43
Old Covenant: This is when the prophet David danced for joy
because he was in the presence of the ark, which held
the word of God.
"Saul's daughter Michal looked down through the
window and saw King David leaping and dancing
before the LORD." 2 Samuel 6:16
New Covenant: This is when the prophet John the Baptist
leaped for joy while in his mother Elizabeth's womb.
He did this when he heard the voice of Mary, who
was pregnant with Jesus, who is also called the
Word of God.
"When Elizabeth heard Mary's greeting, the infant
leaped in her womb, and Elizabeth, filled with the
Holy Spirit." Luke 1:41
Old Covenant: The Israelites were filled with great joy
because they were so close to the ark that held
the word of God.
"As he and all the Israelites were bringing up the
ark of the LORD with shouts of joy and to the
sound of the horn." 2 Samuel 6:15
New Covenant: This shows how filled with joy Elizabeth and
John the Baptist were to be in the presence of Mary,
who held the Word of God.
"Elizabeth cried out in a loud voice and said, 'Most
blessed are you among women, and blessed is the
fruit of your womb!'." Luke 1:42
"For at the moment the sound of your greeting
reached my ears, the infant in my womb leaped
for joy." Luke 1:44
If this is true, that Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant, then
she must have been pure, and could not have any sin on her
soul. The fact that Mary was born without original sin has
been a clear teaching of not only the Catholic Church, but
of the founders of Protestantism as well. Only recently have
some Protestant denominations gone away from this
traditional Christian teaching.
"It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary's
soul was effected without original sin; so that in the very
infusion of her soul she was also purified from original sin
and adorned with God's gifts, receiving a pure soul infused
by God; thus from the first moment she began to live she
was free from all sin." [Martin Luther; "Sermon On the
Day of the Conception of the Mother of God", 1527]
There is one other "type" which I would like to discuss
before moving on to Mary in the NT, and that is the
type of Mary as the "gate". The best explanation I
have seen of this was posted on a mailing list, but I
don't remember which one, and I don't remember the
author. I am going to paste it below, with only minor
editing on my part, and I apologize for not giving credit
to the author:
When Jesus made His triumphal entry into Jerusalem,
He rode on a donkey [colt] which had not been ridden
by anyone else (Mark 11:2-10). He was also buried in
a grave which no one else had used (John 19:41.) These
things were not necessary, but it was only fitting that
the donkey and the grave used by Christ were used by
no one else, as it indicated how special Jesus was.
In the Old Testament there are types that prefigure
people, or events, in the New Testament. The NT
person or event which is being prefigured is called
the archetype. The archetype in the New Testament
is always greater. Adam for example is a type of
Christ. Cf Rom 5:14.
In Ezekiel there is a reference to a gate which is
a type of Mary.
Ezekiel 44:1-3
1 "Then he brought me back to the outer gate of the
sanctuary, facing the east; but it was closed.
2 He said to me: This gate is to remain closed; it
is not to be opened for anyone to enter by it; since
the LORD, the God of Israel, has entered by it,
it shall remain closed.
3 Only the prince may sit down in it to eat his meal
in the presence of the LORD. He must enter by way of
the vestibule of the gate, and leave by the same
way." NAB
Ezekiel 46:8-12
"The prince shall always enter and depart by the
vestibule of the gate....
12 When the prince ..., the eastern gate shall be
opened for him, ... then he shall leave, and the
gate shall be closed after his departure." NAB
The prince is a type of Christ. And the gate
prefigures Mary, since it was through her womb
that Jesus came into the world. It was fitting
that the gate be reserved for prince, and therefore it is only proper that Mary's womb be
reserved for only Jesus. As in the case of
the colt, and the new tomb [above], it was only
proper and appropriate that God's grace moved
Mary to accept a life of consecrated virginity,
as her Perpetual Virginity is sign pointing to the
specialness of Jesus Christ.
Mary as Intercessor
While all Christians have the power to intercede for
each other, the purity and holiness of the intercessor
increases the power of the petition. The Bible is replete
with examples of the Lord "hearing" the prayers of the
righteous. Here are just a few:
[Proverbs 15: 8] "The sacrifice of the wicked is an
abomination to the LORD, but the prayer of the
upright is his delight. "
[Proverbs 15: 29] "The LORD is far from the wicked,
but he hears the prayer of the righteous. "
[James 5: 16-18] " The fervent prayer of a righteous
person is very powerful. Elijah was a human being
like us; yet he prayed earnestly that it might not rain,
and for three years and six months it did not rain
upon the land. Then he prayed again, and the sky
gave rain and the earth produced its fruit."
[Proverbs 28: 9] "If one turns away his ear from hearing
the law, even his prayer is an abomination. "
[1 Peter 3:12] " For the eyes of the Lord are on the
righteous and his ears turned to their prayer, but the
face of the Lord is against evildoers."
[Psalm 32: 6] "Therefore let every one who is godly
offer prayer to thee, at the time of distress..."
[Daniel 9: 21-23] "While I was speaking in prayer, the
man Gabriel, whom I had seen in the vision at the first,
came to me in swift flight at the time of the evening
sacrifice. He came and he said to me, "O Daniel, I have
now come out to give you wisdom and understanding.
At the beginning of your supplications a word went
forth, and I have come to tell it to you, for you are
greatly beloved..."
[2 Chronicles 6: 29-30] "whatever prayer, whatever
supplication is made by any man or by all thy people
Israel, each knowing his own affliction, and his own
sorrow and stretching out his hands toward this house;
then hear thou from heaven thy dwelling place, and
forgive, and render to each whose heart thou knowest,
according to all his ways (for thou, thou only, knowest
the hearts of the children of men)..."
Now, since the Bible makes it clear that those who are
just or righteous are heard by God, and since we know
that those in heaven have no impurity or unrighteousness
in them (otherwise they would not be able to withstand
the presence of God), then we say that the prayers of
the saints have a power and efficacy which may not
always be the case with those of us who are still steeped
in imperfection.
In line with this way of thinking, we see that Mary's intercessory prayers, (becuase she is the Mother of God and
therefore as pure as any human being could be) have a
special power to them.
THE ANCIENT TRADITION OF CHRISTIAN BELIEF IN REGARDS TO MARY
"God's Son by the will and power of God, {was} truly
born of a Virgin."
[St.Ignatius of Antioch; "Letter to the Magnesians"
ca. 110 A. D.]
"And again, how Isaias expressly foretold that He was
to be born of a virgin. He stated the following: 'Behold,
a virgin shall conceive and bear a son; and for his name
they shall say God-with-us'... The phrase 'Behold, a
virgin shall receive' means certainly, that the virgin shall
conceive without intercourse. For if she had intercourse
with anybody at all, she would not be a virgin. But the
power of God, coming upon the Virgin, overshadowed
her, and caused her, while yet a Virgin, to conceive."
[St. Justin The Martyr; "First Apology" 148-155 A. D.]
"Mary the Virgin is found to be obedient, saying: 'Behold,
O Lord, your handmaid; be it done to me according to
your word'. Eve, however, was disobedient; and when yet
a virgin, she did not obey. Just as she, who was still a
virgin although she had Adam for a husband... having
become disobedient, was made the cause of death
for herself and for the whole human race; so also Mary,
betrothed to a man but nevertheless still a virgin, being
obedient, was made the cause of salvation for herself and
for the whole human race... Thus, the knot of Eve's
disobedience was loosed by the obedience of Mary. What
the virgin Eve had bound in unbelief, the Virgin Mary
loosed through faith."
[St. Irenaeus; "Against Heresies" 180-199 A. D.]
"The Virgin Mary, being obedient to his word, received
from an angel the glad tidings that she would bear God"
(Irenaeus of Lyons, "Against Heresies", 5:19:1 [A.D. 189]).
"Though still a virgin she carried a child in her womb,
and the handmaid and work of his wisdom became the
Mother of God"
(Ephraim the Syrian, "Songs of Praise" 1:20 [A.D. 351]).
"The Word begotten of the Father from on high,
inexpressibly, inexplicably, incomprehensibly, and
eternally, is he that is born in time here below of the
Virgin Mary, the Mother of God"
(Athanasius, "The Incarnation of the Word of God" 8
[A.D. 365]).
"If anyone does not agree that Holy Mary is the Mother
of God, he is at odds with the Godhead. If anyone asserts
that Christ passed through the Virgin as thought a channel,
and was not shaped in her both divinely and humanly,
divinely because without man and humanly because in
accord with the law of gestation, he is likewise godless."
[St. Gregory of Nazianz "Letter to Cledonius the Priest"
382 A D]
"It helps us to understand the terms `first-born' and
`only-begotten' when the Evangelist tells that Mary
remained a virgin `until she brought forth her first-
born son' [Matt. 1:25]; for neither did Mary, who is to
be honored and praised above all others, marry
anyone else, nor did she ever become the Mother of
anyone else, but even after childbirth she remained
always and forever an immaculate virgin"
(Didymas, "The Trinity" 3:4 [A.D. 386]).
"That one woman is both mother and virgin, not in spirit
only but even in body. In spirit she is mother, not of our
head, who is our Savior himself--of whom, even herself,
all are rightly called children of the bridegroom--but plainly
she is the mother of us who are his members, because by
love she has cooperated so that the faithful, who are the
members of that head, might be born in the Church. In
body, indeed, she is the mother of that very head"
(Augustine, "Holy Virginity" 6:6 [A.D. 401]).
"When, therefore, they ask, `Is Mary mother of man or
Mother of God?' we answer, `Both!' The one by the
very nature of what was done and the other by relation.
Mother of man because it was a man who was in the
womb of Mary and who came forth from there, and the
Mother of God because God was in the man who was born"
(Theodore of Mopsuestia, "The Incarnation" 15 [A.D. 405]).
"Now, you heretic, you say (whoever you are who deny
that God was born of the Virgin), that Mary, the Mother
of our Lord Jesus Christ, cannot be called the Mother of
God, but the Mother only of Christ and not of God, for no
one, you say, gives birth to one older than herself. And
concerning this utterly stupid argument . . . let us prove
by divine testimonies both that Christ is God and that
Mary is the Mother of God"
(John Cassian, "On the Incarnation of Christ Against
Nestorius" 2:2[A.D.429]).
"[T]he Word himself, coming into the Blessed Virgin
herself, assumed for himself his own temple from the
substance of the Virgin and came forth from her a man
in all that could be externally discerned, while interiorly
he was true God. Therefore he kept his Mother a virgin
even after her child-bearing"
(Cyril of Alexandria,
"Against Those Who Do Not Wish to Confess That
the Holy Virgin is the Mother of God" 4 [A.D. 430]).
"As sailors are guided by a star to the port, so are
Christians guided to Heaven by Mary."
- St. Thomas Aquinas
Even the "reformers" were staunch defenders of Mary:
"I firmly believe that Mary, according to the words of
the gospel as a pure Virgin brought forth for us the Son
of God and in childbirth and after childbirth forever
remained a pure, intact Virgin."
[Ulrich Zwingli; quoted
in "Corpus Reformatorum" v. 1, p. 424]
"He, Christ, our Savior, was the real and natural fruit of
Mary's virginal womb . . . This was without the cooperation
of a man, and she remained a virgin after that.
[Matin Luther; "Sermons on John", chapters 1-4, 1537-39]
"{Mary is the} highest woman and the noblest gem in
Christianity after Christ... She is nobility, wisdom, and
holiness personified. We can never honor her enough."
[Martin Luther; sermon given on Christmas, 1531]
"It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of
Mary's soul was effected without original sin; so that
in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified
from original sin and adorned with God's gifts, receiving
a pure soul infused by God? thus from the first moment
she began to live she was free from all sin."
[Martin Luther; "Sermon On the Day of the Conception
of the Mother of God", 1527]
"There have been certain folk who have wished to
suggest from this passage [Matt 1:25] that the Virgin
Mary had other children than the Son of God, and that
Joseph had then dwelt with her later; but what folly
this is! For the gospel writer did not wish to record
what happened afterwards; he simply wished to make
clear Joseph's obedience and to show also that Joseph
had been well and truly assured that it was God who
had sent His angle to Mary. He had therefore never
dwelt with her nor had he shared her company... And
besides this Our Lord Jesus Christ is called the first
born. This is not because there was a second or a third,
but because the gospel writer is paying regard to
precedence. Scripture speaks thus of naming the
first-born whether or not there was any question of the
second."
[John Calvin; "Sermon on Matthew", published 1562]
"It cannot be denied that God in choosing and destining
Mary to be the Mother of His Son, granted her the
highest honor... Elizabeth calls Mary Mother of the Lord,
because the unity of the person in the two natures of
Christ was such that she could have said that the mortal
man engendered in the womb of Mary was at the same
time the eternal God."
[John Calvin; quoted in "Corpus Reformatorum", v. 45, p. 348]
PERPETUAL VIRGINITY OF MARY
All Christians believe that Mary was a virgin
when she gave birth to Jesus. "But Mary said
to the angel, 'How can this be, since I have no
relations with a man?'. And the angel said to her
in reply, 'The holy Spirit will come upon you,
and the power of the Most High will overshadow
you. Therefore the child to be born will be called
holy, the Son of God." Luke 1:34-35
When Joseph found out that Mary was pregnant,
he was engaged to her, but they were not living
together. He wanted to break the engagement,
because he knew it was not his child:
"Such was Joseph's intention when, behold, the
angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and
said, 'Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take
Mary your wife into your home. For it is through
the Holy Spirit that this child has been conceived
in her.'." Matthew 1:20
All of this was foretold in the Old Testament, and
was made to happen to fulfill the prophesies God
gave the Jewish people:
"Therefore the Lord himself will give you this sign:
the virgin shall be with child, and bear a son, and
shall name him Immanuel." Isaiah 7:14
The Bible's teaching on this subject is so clear, that
all Christian denominations agree on what it means.
Catholics believe that Mary stayed a virgin and did
not have any other children. Some denominations
claim that Mary did have other children. They say
this because the Bible sometimes refers to "brethren
of the Lord". But in Biblical times all close family
members, including cousins, were considered
"brethren". And so we see that in the Bible the
term "brethren" is sometimes used when the people
concerned are not bretheren in the way that we
understand the word.
Some biblical examples of this are:
[Gen 14:14] "And when Abram heard that his
BROTHER was taken captive, he armed his trained
servants, born in his own house, three hundred and
eighteen, and pursued them unto Dan."
The "brother" in question here is Lot. Now, was Lot
the brother of Abram? No. He was the son of Aran,
Abram's deceased brother (Gen 11:26-28). This makes
Lot Abram's NEPHEW.
[Gen 29:15] "And Laban said unto Jacob, Because
thou art my BROTHER, shouldest thou therefore
serve me for nought? tell me, what shall thy wages be?"
Was Laban the brother of Jacob? No, he is his UNCLE.
The explanation for this is simple: there is no Hebrew
or Aramaic word for "cousin". The writers either had
to use "brother" or "sister" or write "the son of the
sister of my father" every time. Needless to say, they
used "brother".
You see, in biblical terms, "brother", "sister", and
"brethren" can mean close relatives, kinsmen, or even
close friends such as:
[I Kings 9:13] "And he said, What cities are these which
thou hast given me, my brother? And he called them the
land of Cabul unto this day."
and
[II Sam 1:26] "I am distressed for thee, my brother
Jonathan: very pleasant hast thou been unto me:
thy love to me was wonderful, passing the love of
women."
It can also just mean an ally!:
[Amos 1:9] "Thus saith the LORD; For three
transgressions of Tyrus, and for four, I will not turn
away the punishment thereof; because they delivered
up the whole captivity to Edom, and remembered not
the brotherly covenant"
Some also sight the words that "Mary had no relations
with Joseph until the birth of Jesus" to mean that
she did have relations afterwards. In the Bible,
however, the concept of until simply means "up to
the time of"-- it doesn't have the connotation that we
have in English of meaning "after it was different".
The Bible mentions a man who produced no offspring
"until the time of his death". I think it is safe to assume
that he didn't produce any after it either. ;-)
A careful look at the New Testament will show us what
a stretch it really is to say that Mary had other children:
When Jesus is found in the temple at age 12,
(Luke 2:41-51) no mention is made of other children,
although the entire family made the journey together.
The people of Nazareth refer to Him as "the son of Mary"
(Mark 6:3), not as "a son of Mary". The Greek
expression implies that He is her only son. In fact,
others in the Gospels are never referred to as Mary's
sons, even when they are called Jesus' "brethren".
There is another point which requires an understanding
of ancient Eastern cultures. In such cultures, the term
"brethren" was used to refer to elders-- older relatives
whose role is to give advice to younger ones. In John
7:3-4, we find the "brethren" of Jesus telling Him to leave
Galilee and go to Judea so His disciples could see His
works. If "brethren" is understood in the way it was
used in this culture, they would have to have been
older than Jesus, which eliminates them as His actual
brothers, since we know that Jesus ws Mary's "first-born".
Finally, consider what happened at the foot of the Cross
(John 19: 26-27). If James, Joseph, Simon and Jude were
indeed His "brothers", why would Jesus have
overlooked such a close family relation and entrusted
His Mother to His disciple John? The Gospel tells us
that "from that hour, the disciple took her into his
own home". Why would she go to the home of a
disciple if she had four or more other children?
MARY, THE MOTHER OF GOD
The fact that Mary is the mother of God
is simple logic:
A woman who gives birth to a child is that
child's mother
+ Mary gave birth to Jesus
__________________________________
= Mary is the mother of Jesus
Mary is the mother of Jesus
+ Jesus is God
__________________________
=Mary is the mother of God
Or, we can just look at the Bible:
[Luke 1:42-43] "And she spake out with a loud
voice, and said, 'Blessed art thou among women,
and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. And whence
is this to me, that the mother of my Lord
should come to me?'"
Again, some more logic:
Mary is "the mother of my Lord"
+ Lord is God
____________________________
=Mary is "the mother of my God"
To say otherwise is to either say Jesus is not God,
or to say Mary did not give birth to Jesus.
Some denominations shy away from calling Mary
the Mother of God, because they feel that it puts
her on level with God. They prefer instead to
say that she was the mother of "the man Christ
Jesus". This, however, betrays a real and, for
Protestant theology, predictable dualism. Christ
Jesus is ONE person-- not two. He is ONE person
with two natures-- fully human and fully divine.
The two natures, however, are united in one Person.
Do we say of our mothers that they are the mothers
of our "nature"? No, we simply say that they are
our mothers-- of us, as people. I am not asserting
that Mary generated or gave life to the divine
nature of Jesus Christ. I AM saying that that
divine nature is intimately linked to the human
nature of our Lord, because He is one Person and
not two. The second Person of the Holy Trinity
"took on flesh"-- that is what "incarnation" (from
Latin caro "flesh") means. Where did He get that
flesh from? If Jesus is God, and Mary is His mother,
how is it logically possible to say that Mary is not
the mother of God?
MARY'S IMMACULATE CONCEPTION
Let's start with the objections. The Protestant
position may be summed up as follows:
There is no scripture whatsoever to support any
such thing about Mary. Paul tells us in his letter
to the Romans that "There is none righteous, no,
not one: For all have sinned, and come short of the
glory of God." Also, if Mary was born without sin,
she wouldn't need a Saviour, she'd be one.
OK, first of all, there is Scriptural evidence of
Mary's unique purity (immaculate conception)--
the entire comparison between the Ark of the
Covenant which held the 10 Commandments,
and Mary as the Ark of the New Covenant and
as the gate (see Part 2).
The most common objection, however, is the
use of Paul's words "all have sinned". The word
used for "all" in the original Greek version, which
is the language in which Paul wrote, is "pas".
"Pas" does not always mean every single one, but
the rather a vast majority, most, or a great amount.
We can see other times in the Bible where "all" is
used, but clearly does not mean every single one:
"I myself am convinced about you, my brothers,
that you yourselves are full of goodness, filled
with all knowledge, and able to admonish one
another." [Romans 15:14]
In this part, "all" certainly does not mean every single
one. If it did, the Romans, who had all knowledge,
would have had the knowledge of God!
As far as the last objection, it is not true that if Mary
were born without original sin she wouldn't need a
Savior. All redemption comes from the Cross of Christ,
including Mary's. She wasn't born without sin by her
own merit, but by an act of mercy on the part of God. If
we believe that Jesus saves us from sin and death even
after we have committed our own personal sins, why
should we balk at the idea that He saved the woman
He chose to be His Mother from sin and death even
before she was born? Her immaculate conception was
brought about by the grace flowing from the Cross,
not from anything she did on her own. Mary is in NO
WAY a Savior. She IS, however, the Mother of the
Savior, and as such needed to be as pure as possible.
Our Faith is filled with examples of God working in
mysterious and miraculous ways, from feeding His
people in the desert, to granting children to those
thought to be barren, to curing the sick, raising from
the dead, taking on flesh and becoming man--in the
light of all of this, why should it be difficult for us to
believe that God mystically applied the merits and
graces won on Calvary to His Mother, so that she
would be as worthy as possible to be the Ark of the
New Covenant, the Mother of God? We know that,
since He is God, He is able to do this if He so
wished. The only remaining question, then, is:
"How probable is it that God wished for the woman
chosen to bring Jesus Christ into the world to be as
pure and worthy as any human being could be?" Or
maybe it sounds even more clear when stated
negatively: "How probable is it that God would allow
Jesus Christ to take His flesh from, be nourished for
nine months in the womb of, be born of, be nursed
from, and be raised by a woman tainted by original
sin?"
Please email any comments to: Antoine Valentim
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